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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

Security Operations: This domain is designed for CompTIA security architects and covers analyzing data to support monitoring and response activities, as well as assessing vulnerabilities and recommending solutions to reduce attack surfaces. Candidates will apply threat-hunting techniques and utilize threat intelligence concepts to enhance operational security.

Topic 2

Security Architecture: This domain focuses on analyzing requirements to design resilient systems, including the configuration of firewalls and intrusion detection systems.

Topic 3

Security Engineering: This section measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that involve troubleshooting common issues related to identity and access management (IAM) components within an enterprise environment. Candidates will analyze requirements to enhance endpoint and server security while implementing hardware security technologies. This domain also emphasizes the importance of advanced cryptographic concepts in securing systems.

Topic 4

Governance, Risk, and Compliance: This section of the exam measures the skills of CompTIA security architects that cover the implementation of governance components based on organizational security requirements, including developing policies, procedures, and standards. Candidates will learn about managing security programs, including awareness training on phishing and social engineering.

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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q22-Q27):

NEW QUESTION # 22
A news organization wants to implement workflows that allow users to request that untruthful data be retraced and scrubbed from online publications to comply with the right to be forgotten Which of the following regulations is the organization most likely trying to address'

A. DORA
B. GDPR
C. CCPA
D. COPPA

Answer: B

Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the regulation most likely being addressed by the news organization. GDPR includes provisions for the "right to be forgotten," which allows individuals to request the deletion of personal data that is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected. This regulation aims to protect the privacy and personal data of individuals within the European Union.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Covers GDPR and its requirements, including the right to be forgotten.
* GDPR official documentation: Details the rights of individuals, including data erasure and the right to be forgotten.
* "GDPR: A Practical Guide to the General Data Protection Regulation" by IT Governance Privacy Team:
Provides a comprehensive overview of GDPR compliance, including workflows for data deletion requests.

NEW QUESTION # 23
A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:

Which of thefollowing should the analyst do first?

A. Disable User2's account
B. Disable User12's account
C. Disable User1's account
D. Disable User8's account

Answer: C

Explanation:
Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1's accountexperienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here's a breakdown of why disabling User1's account is the appropriate first step:
Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
VM01 at 8:01:23 AM
VM08 at 8:01:23 AM
Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.
Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1's account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines
By addressing User1's account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.

NEW QUESTION # 24
A company that uses containers to run its applications is required to identify vulnerabilities on every container image in a private repository The security team needs to be able to quickly evaluate whether to respond to a given vulnerability Which of the following, will allow the security team to achieve the objective with the last effort?

A. Centralized SBoM
B. Credentialed vulnerability scan
C. CIS benchmark compliance reports
D. SAST scan reports

Answer: A

Explanation:
A centralized Software Bill of Materials (SBoM) is the best solution for identifying vulnerabilities in container images in a private repository. An SBoM provides a comprehensive inventory of all components, dependencies, and their versions within a container image, facilitating quick evaluation and response to vulnerabilities.
Why Centralized SBoM?
Comprehensive Inventory: An SBoM lists all software components, including their versions and dependencies, allowing for thorough vulnerability assessments.
Quick Identification: Centralizing SBoM data enables rapid identification of affected containers when a vulnerability is disclosed.
Automation: SBoMs can be integrated into automated tools for continuous monitoring and alerting of vulnerabilities.
Regulatory Compliance: Helps in meeting compliance requirements by providing a clear and auditable record of all software components used.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of comprehensive and efficient vulnerability management:
A:SAST scan reports: Focuses on static analysis of code but may not cover all components in container images.
C:CIS benchmark compliance reports: Ensures compliance with security benchmarks but does not provide detailed component inventory.
D:Credentialed vulnerability scan: Useful for in-depth scans but may not be as efficient for quick vulnerability evaluation.

NEW QUESTION # 25
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?

A. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
B. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant
C. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process
D. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
A: Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
B: Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
D: Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide" ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"

NEW QUESTION # 26
Recent repents indicate that a software tool is being exploited Attackers were able to bypass user access controls and load a database. A security analyst needs to find the vulnerability and recommend a mitigation.
The analyst generates the following output:

Which of the following would the analyst most likely recommend?

A. Installing appropriate EDR tools to block pass-the-hash attempts
B. Adding additional time to software development to perform fuzz testing
C. Not allowing users to change their local passwords
D. Removing hard coded credentials from the source code

Answer: D

Explanation:
The output indicates that the software tool contains hard-coded credentials, which attackers can exploit to bypass user access controls and load the database. The most likely recommendation is to remove hard-coded credentials from the source code. Here's why:
* Security Best Practices: Hard-coded credentials are a significant security risk because they can be easily discovered through reverse engineering or simple inspection of the code. Removing them reduces the risk of unauthorized access.
* Credential Management: Credentials should be managed securely using environment variables, secure vaults, or configuration management tools that provide encryption and access controls.
* Mitigation of Exploits: By eliminating hard-coded credentials, the organization can prevent attackers from easily bypassing authentication mechanisms and gaining unauthorized access to sensitive systems.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* OWASP Top Ten: Insecure Design
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations

NEW QUESTION # 27
......

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